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Juniper JN0-105 Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Configuration Basics: Identification of the main elements for configuring Junos devices is discussed in this topic. Moreover, it describes configuring basic components of a Junos device
Topic 2
  • Routing Fundamentals: This topic discusses pointing out basic routing concepts or functionality for Junos devices. Moreover, the topic also describes configuring or monitoring basic routing elements for a Junos device.
Topic 3
  • User Interfaces: This topic delves into identifying the concepts, operation, or functionality of the Junos user interface.
Topic 4
  • Junos OS Fundamentals: It covers concepts, benefits, and functionality of the core elements of the Junos OS.
Topic 5
  • Networking Fundamentals: The topic networking fundamentals covers identifying the concepts and functionality of different fundamental elements of networking.
Topic 6
  • Operational Monitoring and Maintenance: Different methods of monitoring or maintaining Junos devices are identified in this topic. Lastly, it discusses monitoring or maintenance procedures for a Junos device.

Juniper Junos, Associate (JNCIA-Junos) Sample Questions (Q76-Q81):

NEW QUESTION # 76
Which two statements are true about the Junos OS? (Choose two.)

  • A. Exception traffic is sent to the control plane.
  • B. Routing tables are stored in the control plane.
  • C. Exception traffic is never sent to the control plane.
  • D. Routing tables are stored in the forwarding plane.

Answer: A,B

Explanation:
In Junos OS, as with many network operating systems, the control plane is responsible for processes that determine how to route traffic. This includes maintaining routing tables, which store information about network paths and protocols. Therefore, routing tables are indeed stored in the control plane.
Exception traffic refers to packets that cannot be processed by the normal fast-path processing of the Packet Forwarding Engine (PFE) in the forwarding plane, and thus are sent to the control plane for further processing.
This might include packets destined for the router itself, packets that need to be fragmented, or packets that match certain firewall filter criteria, among other reasons.
Routing tables are not stored in the forwarding plane. However, the forwarding plane contains the forwarding table (sometimes referred to as the forwarding informationbase or FIB), which is a distilled version of the routing table optimized for fast packet forwarding. The forwarding plane uses this information to perform the actual transfer of packets across the network device interfaces.


NEW QUESTION # 77
Exhibit
user@router> show route 192.168.100.2
inet.O: 15 destinations, 17 routes (15 active, 0 holddown, 0 hidden) Limit/Threshold: 1048576/1048576 destinations
+ = Active Route, - = Last Active, * = Both 192.168.100.2/32*[OSPF/IO] 00:14:29, metric 1
> to 172.16.1.6 via ge-0/0/1.0 [BGP/170] 00:06:49, localpref 100
AS path: 65102 I, validation-state: unverified > to 172.16.1.6 via ge-0/0/1.0 Referring to the exhibit, which statement is correct?

  • A. / Traffic is load-balanced across two routes.
  • B. The BGP path is the only active route.
  • C. The BGP route is preferred over the OSPF route.
  • D. The OSPF path is the only active route.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Referring to the exhibit, the presence of the "+" symbol next to the OSPF route for 192.168.100.2/32 indicates that this is the active route being used to forward traffic. The BGP route, although present, does not have the
"+" symbol, indicating it is not the active route. In Junos OS, the routing table displays the active route with a
"+" symbol, and the fact that the OSPF route has this symbol means it is the preferred path based on the routing protocol'sdecision process, which takes into account factors such as route preference (administrative distance) and metrics.


NEW QUESTION # 78
Click the Exhibit button.

Referring to the exhibit, what should be configured on R1 to advertise a default static route into OSPF?

  • A. a management interface
  • B. a loopback interface
  • C. a firewall filter
  • D. a routing policy

Answer: D

Explanation:
To advertise a default static route into OSPF on router R1, a routing policy should be configured. This policy would typically include a statement to match the default route (0.0.0.0/0) and then apply an action to set the route as an OSPF external type, which would then be redistributed into the OSPF domain. The routing policy is a set of conditions and actions that determine how routes are imported into or exported from the routing table and how routes are shared between routing instances or routing protocols. After defining the policy, it must be applied to OSPF under the export section of the OSPF configuration on R1. This process will allow R1 to announce the default route to other OSPF routers in the network, which then can use it as a gateway of last resort to reach the Internet or other networks not explicitly known to the OSPF domain.


NEW QUESTION # 79
You are logged in to a Junos OS device with SSH and issued the show protocols | compare command in the configuration, but no output is shown.
Which statement is correct in this scenario?

  • A. You must commit the configuration before any output will be shown.
  • B. There are no changes to the candidate configuration.
  • C. Someone accidentally deleted the active configuration.
  • D. The command only works for interface configuration differences.

Answer: B

Explanation:
If issuing the "show | compare" command in configuration mode yields no output, it indicates that there are no changes to the candidate configuration (B). This command is used to compare the current candidate configuration with the active configuration, and a lack of output suggests that the candidate configuration matches the active one, meaning no changes have been made or the changes have already been committed.


NEW QUESTION # 80
What are two benefits when implementing class of service? (Choose two.)

  • A. Traffic congestion will be eliminated.
  • B. The network will be faster.
  • C. Traffic congestion can be managed.
  • D. Latency-sensitive traffic can be prioritized

Answer: A,D

Explanation:
Implementing Class of Service (CoS) in a network provides numerous benefits, particularly in managing traffic based on its importance, source, or type. CoS enables network administrators to manage traffic congestion by applying various queuing techniques and policies to ensure that critical services remain unaffected during high congestion periods. Additionally, CoS allows for the prioritization of latency-sensitive traffic such as voice and video, ensuring that these services maintain quality despite varying network conditions.


NEW QUESTION # 81
......

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Avaya Aura® Communication Applications Implement Certified Exam Sample Questions (Q82-Q87):

NEW QUESTION # 82
Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of a Configuration Profile in the Avaya Session Border Controller for Enterprise (ASBCE) allows to set Timers, URI Manipulation and Header Manipulation, and can be linked to a SIP Server Profile?

  • A. Signaling Manipulation
  • B. Routing
  • C. Server Interworking
  • D. Topology Hiding

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
A Server Interworking Profile is a type of a Configuration Profile in the Avaya Session Border Controller for Enterprise (ASBCE) that allows setting Timers, URI Manipulation and Header Manipulation, and can be linked to a SIP Server Profile. A Configuration Profile is a configuration object that defines how the ASBCE server handles different aspects of SIP signaling and media processing. A Server Interworking Profile is a Configuration Profile that defines how the ASBCE server interworks with different types of SIP servers, such as Communication Manager, Session Manager, or third-party servers. A Server Interworking Profile can include parameters such as Timers, which specify the timeout values for various SIP transactions; URI Manipulation, which specifies how to modify the user part or domain part of SIP URIs; and Header Manipulation, which specifies how to add, delete, or modify SIP headers. A Server Interworking Profile can be linked to a SIP Server Profile, which is another Configuration Profile that defines the identity and characteristics of a SIP server that communicates with the ASBCE server.


NEW QUESTION # 83
Before SIP Trunking configuration can begin, which state must the Avaya Session Border Controller for Enterprise (SBCE) be in?

  • A. Ready
  • B. Provisioned
  • C. Commissioned
  • D. Registered

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 84
A user is calling the helpdesk to ask how the Avaya Spaces Calling extension can be added, to allow calling from their Avaya Spaces session. How should the helpdesk engineer respond?

  • A. Make sure your PC has internet access, and use the Microsoft Store to find, download and install the Avaya Spaces Calling app.
  • B. Make sure your PC has internet access, use your preferred browser to navigate to www.support.avaya.com, and then find the Avaya Spaces Calling app, download and install it.
  • C. Use your preferred browser to navigate to the AAWG web interface, log in with your company credentials, and use the hyperlink at the bottom-right corner of the home page to download and install Avaya Spaces Calling.
  • D. Make sure your PC has internet access, use the Google Chrome browser to open the Chrome Web Store, search for the Avaya Spaces Calling extension, and add this extension to the Chrome browser.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
The Avaya Spaces Calling extension is a softphone that provides calling features to users of Avaya Spaces by leveraging their existing Avaya infrastructure. This extension can be used alongside the Avaya Spaces web application or desktop client to make and receive audio calls through the Avaya Aura® Web Gateway (AAWG). To add the Avaya Spaces Calling extension, you need to have internet access and use the Google Chrome browser to open the Chrome Web Store. Then, you need to search for the Avaya Spaces Calling extension and click on the Add to Chrome button. The extension will be installed and added to your Chrome browser. You can then use the extension icon in the browser toolbar to access the Avaya Spaces Calling settings and features12


NEW QUESTION # 85
You want to multiplex all remote workers SIP messages to Avaya Aura Session Manager (SM) over the same TCP connection, rather than open a dedicated TCP connection for each user.
Which feature needs to be enabled for Avaya Session Border Controller for Enterprise (SBCE)?

  • A. the Share Transport Link feature in the Advanced tab of the Avaya Aura Session Manager (SM) Server Profile
  • B. the Enable Grooming feature in the Advanced tab of the Avaya Aura Session Manager (SM) Server Profile
  • C. the Enable Shared Control feature in the Signaling Interface.
  • D. the Stream Users Over Transport Link feature in the Signaling Interface

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 86
In Avaya Session Border Controller for Enterprise (SBCE) 7.x, which two configuration screens must be configured for Personal Profile Management (PPM) to be successfully downloaded to an Avaya SIP Telephone (AST)? (Choose two.)

  • A. Application Relay
  • B. File Transfer
  • C. Reverse Proxy
  • D. PPM Services Mapping Profile

Answer: A,D


NEW QUESTION # 87
......

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APICS Certified in Planning and Inventory Management (CPIM 8.0) Sample Questions (Q123-Q128):

NEW QUESTION # 123
A newer automotive supplier has not fully developed its information technology (IT) systems. The supplier has Just received a contract from a large automotive manufacturer which requires the supplier to use electronic data interchange (EDI) transactions for receiving orders, sending advance ship notices (ASNs), and receiving invoice payments. What strategy can the supplier adopt to immediately meet the EDI requirements?

  • A. Negotiate using email as an alternative with the customer.
  • B. Use current third-party logistics provider (3PL) to handle the EDI transactions.
  • C. Claim hardship and ask the automotive manufacturer for a waiver.
  • D. Select, install, and implement EDI software.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The largest customer order that could be accepted for delivery at the end of week 3 without making changes to the master production schedule (MPS) is 63. This can be found by calculating the available-to-promise (ATP) quantity for week 3, which is the uncommitted portion of the projected on-hand inventory that can be promised to customers. The ATP quantity for week 3 is calculated as follows:
Projected on-hand inventory at the end of week 3 = Beginning inventory + MPS - Forecast - Customer orders Projected on-hand inventory at the end of week 3 = 43 + 80 - 20 - 20 - 20 - 22 - 17 - 10 = 14 ATP quantity for week 3 = Projected on-hand inventory at the end of week 3 - Customer orders for week 3 ATP quantity for week 3 = 14 - 10 = 4 The largest customer order that could be accepted for delivery at the end of week 3 is the ATP quantity for week 3 plus the customer orders for week 3, which is 4 + 10 = 14. However, this is not one of the options given in the question. Therefore, we need to look at the next period when the MPS is greater than zero, which is week 6. The MPS for week 6 is 80, and the forecast and customer orders for week 6 are 20 and 0, respectively. Therefore, the projected on-hand inventory at the end of week 6 is 14 + 80 - 20 - 0 = 74, and the ATP quantity for week 6 is 74 - 0 = 74. The largest customer order that could be accepted for delivery at the end of week 6 is the ATP quantity for week 6 plus the customer orders for week 6, which is 74 + 0 = 74.
However, this is also not one of the options given in the question. Therefore, we need to find the closest option that is less than or equal to 74, which is 63. Hence, the answer is B. 63. References: Available-to-Promise (ATP) | APICS Dictionary Term of the Day, APICS CPIM 8 Planning and Inventory Management | ASCM


NEW QUESTION # 124
The costs provided in the table below are associated with buying a quantity larger than immediately needed.
What Is the total landed cost based on this table?
Cost CategoryCost
Custom fees$125
Freight$700
Warehouse rent$200
Matenal cost$500

  • A. $825
  • B. $1,325
  • C. $1,525
  • D. $1,400

Answer: C

Explanation:
The total landed cost is the sum of all the costs associated with buying a quantity larger than immediately needed, including the cost of the product, the custom fees, the freight, and the warehouse rent. Based on the table, the total landed cost can be calculated as follows:
Landed cost = material cost + custom fees + freight + warehouse rent Landed cost = $500 + $125 + $700 +
$200 Landed cost = $1,525
Therefore, the correct answer is D. $1,525. The other options are not correct, as they either omit some of the costs or use incorrect values. The total landed cost reflects the direct costs only to move the product from the factory floor to the customer. It is an important supply chain KPI in inventory management, as it helps to determine the optimal order quantity, pricing, and profitability of the products12. References:
What is Landed Cost? | Calculation and Tips to Improve - ORBA Cloud CFO What is Landed Cost & Why is it Important | Finale Inventory


NEW QUESTION # 125
Which of the following planning modules considers the shortest-range planning goals?

  • A. Capacity requirementsplanning(CRP)
  • B. Rough-cut capacity planning (RCCP)
  • C. Resource planning
  • D. Input/output analysis

Answer: A

Explanation:
Capacity requirements planning (CRP) is a planning module that considers the shortest-range planning goals.
CRP is a process of determining the amount of available capacity and comparing it with the required capacity to execute the planned orders in the master production schedule (MPS) and the material requirements planning (MRP). CRP is usually done at the work center level and for a time horizon of a few weeks or months. CRP helps to identify and resolve capacity issues, such as overloads or underloads, and to adjust the production plan accordingly. CRP is the most detailed and accurate method of capacity planning, as it considers the actual routings, lead times, and lot sizes of the orders. The other options are not correct, as they either consider longer-range planning goals or less detailed capacity information:
*Input/output analysis is a technique of monitoring the input (planned orders) and output (actual production) of a work center or a product family, and comparing them with the available capacity. Input/output analysis is usually done at the aggregate level and for a time horizon of a few months or quarters. Input/output analysis helps to measure the performance of the production plan and to identify and correct deviations from the plan.
*Resource planning is a process of determining the long-range capacity requirements for labor, equipment, facilities, and other resources, based on the sales and operations plan (S&OP). Resource planning is usually done at the aggregate level and for a time horizon of a few years. Resource planning helps to support the strategic decisions and investments related to the resource capacity.
*Rough-cut capacity planning (RCCP) is a process of verifying the feasibility of the master production schedule (MPS) in terms of the available capacity of critical resources, such as key machines or labor skills.
RCCP is usually done at the product family level and for a time horizon of a few months or quarters. RCCP helps to validate the MPS and to identify and resolve potential capacity bottlenecks or gaps. References:
*[CPIM Part 2 - Section A - Topic 2 - Capacity Planning]
*Capacity Requirements Planning (CRP)
*Input/Output Control
*Resource Planning
*Rough Cut Capacity Planning (RCCP)


NEW QUESTION # 126
A company implementing a localized multi-country strategy to increase market share should engage in which of the following actions?

  • A. Locate plants on the basis of maximum location advantage.
  • B. Use the best suppliers regardless of geographic location.
  • C. Sell the same products under the same brand name worldwide.
  • D. Sell different product versions in different countries under different brand names.

Answer: D

Explanation:
A localized multi-country strategy is a type of global strategy that involves adapting products, marketing, and operations to the specific needs and preferences of each country or region where the company operates. This strategy allows the company to increase its market share by appealing to the local customers and differentiating itself from the competitors. A localized multi-country strategy requires the company to sell different product versions in different countries under different brand names, as this reflects the high degree of customization and localization that the strategy entails. The other options are not consistent with a localized multi-country strategy, as they imply a low degree of adaptation and a high degree of standardization across the markets. Selling the same products under the same brand name worldwide is a global strategy that assumes universal customer preferences and seeks economies of scale. Locating plants on the basis of maximum location advantage is a transnational strategy that balances global integration and local responsiveness. Using the best suppliers regardless of geographic location is a sourcing strategy that does not necessarily reflect the degree of localization of the products or the marketing. References:
CPIM Part 2 Exam Content Manual, p. 19
Multidomestic strategy: Global success through localization
Localization strategy - How to build with examples


NEW QUESTION # 127
The primary benefit that results from the cross-training of employees is:

  • A. improved flexibility.
  • B. improved capacity.
  • C. shortened lead time.
  • D. effective problem-solving.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Cross-training employees is the process of training employees for skills and job roles they weren't initially hired for. This allows them to switch between different tasks and roles when needed, which increases the flexibility and adaptability of the workforce. Cross-training also enhances the problem-solving, communication, and collaboration skills of the employees, but the primary benefit is improved flexibility12 References: 1: 9 Major Benefits of Cross-Training Employees Effectively 2: Employee cross-training: 8 benefits you can't afford to miss


NEW QUESTION # 128
......

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Linux Foundation Certified Kubernetes Application Developer Exam Sample Questions (Q26-Q31):

NEW QUESTION # 26
Context

Task:
Modify the existing Deployment named broker-deployment running in namespace quetzal so that its containers.
1) Run with user ID 30000 and
2) Privilege escalation is forbidden
The broker-deployment is manifest file can be found at:

Answer:

Explanation:
Solution:



NEW QUESTION # 27

Task
You are required to create a pod that requests a certain amount of CPU and memory, so it gets scheduled to-a node that has those resources available.
* Create a pod named nginx-resources in the pod-resources namespace that requests a minimum of 200m CPU and 1Gi memory for its container
* The pod should use the nginx image
* The pod-resources namespace has already been created

Answer:

Explanation:
See the solution below.
Explanation
Solution:





NEW QUESTION # 28

Task:
Modify the existing Deployment named broker-deployment running in namespace quetzal so that its containers.
1) Run with user ID 30000 and
2) Privilege escalation is forbidden
The broker-deployment is manifest file can be found at:

Answer:

Explanation:
See the solution below.
Explanation
Solution:

Text Description automatically generated


NEW QUESTION # 29
Context
Anytime a team needs to run a container on Kubernetes they will need to define a pod within which to run the container.
Task
Please complete the following:
* Create a YAML formatted pod manifest
/opt/KDPD00101/podl.yml to create a pod named app1 that runs a container named app1cont using image Ifccncf/arg-output with these command line arguments: -lines 56 -F
* Create the pod with the kubect1 command using the YAML file created in the previous step
* When the pod is running display summary data about the pod in JSON format using the kubect1 command and redirect the output to a file named /opt/KDPD00101/out1.json
* All of the files you need to work with have been created, empty, for your convenience

Answer:

Explanation:
Solution:






NEW QUESTION # 30
Context

Task:
Create a Pod named nginx resources in the existing pod resources namespace.
Specify a single container using nginx:stable image.
Specify a resource request of 300m cpus and 1G1 of memory for the Pod's container.

Answer:

Explanation:
Solution:




NEW QUESTION # 31
......

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Amazon SAA-C03 exam, also known as the Amazon AWS Certified Solutions Architect - Associate (SAA-C03), is a certification exam that tests candidates' abilities to design and deploy scalable, highly available, and fault-tolerant systems on Amazon Web Services (AWS). Amazon AWS Certified Solutions Architect - Associate (SAA-C03) Exam certification is essential for IT professionals who want to validate their expertise in AWS architecture and design and is highly sought-after by employers globally.

Amazon AWS Certified Solutions Architect - Associate (SAA-C03) Exam Sample Questions (Q743-Q748):

NEW QUESTION # 743
An online events registration system is hosted in AWS and uses ECS to host its front-end tier and an RDS configured with Multi-AZ for its database tier.
What are the events that will make Amazon RDS automatically perform a failover to the standby replica?
(Select TWO.)

  • A. Compute unit failure on secondary DB instance
  • B. Storage failure on primary
  • C. In the event of Read Replica failure
  • D. Storage failure on secondary DB instance
  • E. Loss of availability in primary Availability Zone

Answer: B,E

Explanation:
Amazon RDS provides high availability and failover support for DB instances using Multi-AZ deployments. Amazon RDS uses several different technologies to provide failover support. Multi-AZ deployments for Oracle, PostgreSQL, MySQL, and MariaDB DB instances use Amazon's failover technology. SQL Server DB instances use SQL Server Database Mirroring (DBM).
In a Multi-AZ deployment, Amazon RDS automatically provisions and maintains a synchronous standby replica in a different Availability Zone. The primary DB instance is synchronously replicated across Availability Zones to a standby replica to provide data redundancy, eliminate I/O freezes, and minimize latency spikes during system backups. Running a DB instance with high availability can enhance availability during planned system maintenance, and help protect your databases against DB instance failure and Availability Zone disruption.
Amazon RDS detects and automatically recovers from the most common failure scenarios for Multi-AZ deployments so that you can resume database operations as quickly as possible without administrative intervention.

The high-availability feature is not a scaling solution for read-only scenarios; you cannot use a standby replica to serve read traffic. To service read-only traffic, you should use a Read Replica. Amazon RDS automatically performs a failover in the event of any of the following:
Loss of availability in primary Availability Zone.
Loss of network connectivity to primary.
Compute unit failure on primary.
Storage failure on primary.
Hence, the correct answers are:
- Loss of availability in primary Availability Zone
- Storage failure on primary
The following options are incorrect because all these scenarios do not affect the primary database.
Automatic failover only occurs if the primary database is the one that is affected.
- Storage failure on secondary DB instance
- In the event of Read Replica failure
- Compute unit failure on secondary DB instance References: https://aws.amazon.com/rds/details/multi- az/ https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonRDS/latest/UserGuide/Concepts.MultiAZ.html Check out this Amazon RDS Cheat Sheet: https://tutorialsdojo.com/amazon-relational-database-service-amazon-rds/


NEW QUESTION # 744
A company has a VPC for its Human Resource department and another VPC located in different AWS regions for its Finance department. The Solutions Architect must redesign the architecture to allow the finance department to access all resources that are in the human resource department, and vice versa. An Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) must also be integrated for active traffic flow inspection and to block any vulnerability exploits.
Which network architecture design in AWS should the Solutions Architect set up to satisfy the above requirement?

  • A. Create a Traffic Policy in Amazon Route 53 to connect the two VPCs. Configure the Route 53 Resolver DNS Firewall to do active traffic flow inspection and block any vulnerability exploits.
  • B. Establish a secure connection between the two VPCs using a NAT Gateway. Manage user sessions via the AWS Systems Manager Session Manager service.
  • C. Launch an AWS Transit Gateway and add VPC attachments to connect all departments. Set up AWS Network Firewall to secure the application traffic travelling between the VPCs.
  • D. Create a Direct Connect Gateway and add VPC attachments to connect all departments. Configure AWS Security Hub to secure the application traffic travelling between the VPCs.

Answer: C

Explanation:
A transit gateway is a network transit hub that you can use to interconnect your virtual private clouds (VPCs) and on-premises networks. As your cloud infrastructure expands globally, inter-Region peering connects transit gateways together using the AWS Global Infrastructure. Your data is automatically encrypted and never travels over the public internet.

A transit gateway attachment is both a source and a destination of packets. You can attach the following resources to your transit gateway:
- One or more VPCs.
- One or more VPN connections
- One or more AWS Direct Connect gateways
- One or more Transit Gateway Connect attachments
- One or more transit gateway peering connections
AWS Transit Gateway deploys an elastic network interface within VPC subnets, which is then used by the transit gateway to route traffic to and from the chosen subnets. You must have at least one subnet for each Availability Zone, which then enables traffic to reach resources in every subnet of that zone.
During attachment creation, resources within a particular Availability Zone can reach a transit gateway only if a subnet is enabled within the same zone. If a subnet route table includes a route to the transit gateway, traffic is only forwarded to the transit gateway if the transit gateway has an attachment in the subnet of the same Availability Zone.
Intra-region peering connections are supported. You can have different transit gateways in different Regions.
AWS Network Firewall is a managed service that makes it easy to deploy essential network protections for all of your Amazon Virtual Private Clouds (VPCs). The service can be setup with just a few clicks and scales automatically with your network traffic, so you don't have to worry about deploying and managing any infrastructure. AWS Network Firewall's flexible rules engine lets you define firewall rules that give you fine-grained control over network traffic, such as blocking outbound Server Message Block (SMB) requests to prevent the spread of malicious activity.



AWS Network Firewall includes features that provide protections from common network threats. AWS Network Firewall's stateful firewall can incorporate context from traffic flows, like tracking connections and protocol identification, to enforce policies such as preventing your VPCs from accessing domains using an unauthorized protocol. AWS Network Firewall's intrusion prevention system (IPS) provides active traffic flow inspection so you can identify and block vulnerability exploits using signature-based detection. AWS Network Firewall also offers web filtering that can stop traffic to known bad URLs and monitor fully qualified domain names.
Hence, the correct answer is: Launch a Transit Gateway and add VPC attachments to connect all departments. Set up AWS Network Firewall to secure the application traffic travelling between the VPCs.
The option that says: Create a Traffic Policy in Amazon Route 53 to connect the two VPCs. Configure the Route 53 Resolver DNS Firewall to do active traffic flow inspection and block any vulnerability exploits is incorrect because the Traffic Policy feature is commonly used in tandem with the geoproximity routing policy for creating and maintaining records in large and complex configurations. Moreover, the Route 53 Resolver DNS Firewall can only filter and regulate outbound DNS traffic for your virtual private cloud (VPC). It can neither do active traffic flow inspection nor block any vulnerability exploits.
The option that says: Establish a secure connection between the two VPCs using a NAT Gateway.
Manage user sessions via the AWS Systems Manager Session Manager service is incorrect because a NAT Gateway is simply a Network Address Translation (NAT) service and can't be used to connect two VPCs in different AWS regions. This service allows your instances in a private subnet to connect to services outside your VPC but external services cannot initiate a connection with those instances.
Furthermore, the AWS Systems Manager Session Manager service is meant for managing EC2 instances via remote SSH or PowerShell access. This is not used for managing user sessions.
The option that says: Create a Direct Connect Gateway and add VPC attachments to connect all departments. Configure AWS Security Hub to secure the application traffic travelling between the VPCs is incorrect. An AWS Direct Connect gateway is meant to be used in conjuction with an AWS Direct Connect connection to your on-premises network to connect with a Transit Gateway or a Virtual Private Gateway. You still need a Transit Gateway to connect the two VPCs that are in different AWS Regions.
The AWS Security Hub is simply a cloud security posture management service that automates best practice checks, aggregates alerts, and supports automated remediation. It's important to note that it doesn't secure application traffic just by itself.
References:
https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonVPC/latest/UserGuide/vpc-peering.html
https://aws.amazon.com/transit-gateway
https://aws.amazon.com/network-firewall
Check out these Amazon VPC and VPC Peering Cheat Sheets: https://tutorialsdojo.com/amazon-vpc/
https://tutorialsdojo.com/vpc-peering/


NEW QUESTION # 745
A Solutions Architect is working for a weather station in Asia with a weather monitoring system that needs to be migrated to AWS. Since the monitoring system requires a low network latency and high network throughput, the Architect decided to launch the EC2 instances to a new cluster placement group. The system was working fine for a couple of weeks, however, when they try to add new instances to the placement group that already has running EC2 instances, they receive an 'insufficient capacity error'.
How will the Architect fix this issue?

  • A. Verify all running instances are of the same size and type and then try the launch again.
  • B. Create another Placement Group and launch the new instances in the new group.
  • C. Stop and restart the instances in the Placement Group and then try the launch again.
  • D. Submit a capacity increase request to AWS as you are initially limited to only 12 instances per Placement Group.

Answer: C

Explanation:
A cluster placement group is a logical grouping of instances within a single Availability Zone. A cluster placement group can span peered VPCs in the same Region. Instances in the same cluster placement group enjoy a higher per-flow throughput limit for TCP/IP traffic and are placed in the same high- bisection bandwidth segment of the network.

It is recommended that you launch the number of instances that you need in the placement group in a single launch request and that you use the same instance type for all instances in the placement group.
If you try to add more instances to the placement group later, or if you try to launch more than one instance type in the placement group, you increase your chances of getting an insufficient capacity error.
If you stop an instance in a placement group and then start it again, it still runs in the placement group.
However, the start fails if there isn't enough capacity for the instance.
If you receive a capacity error when launching an instance in a placement group that already has running instances, stop and start all of the instances in the placement group, and try the launch again. Restarting the instances may migrate them to hardware that has capacity for all the requested instances.
Stop and restart the instances in the Placement group and then try the launch again can resolve this issue. If the instances are stopped and restarted, AWS may move the instances to a hardware that has the capacity for all the requested instances.
Hence, the correct answer is: Stop and restart the instances in the Placement Group and then try the launch again.
The option that says: Create another Placement Group and launch the new instances in the new group is incorrect because to benefit from the enhanced networking, all the instances should be in the same Placement Group. Launching the new ones in a new Placement Group will not work in this case.
The option that says: Verify all running instances are of the same size and type and then try the launch again is incorrect because the capacity error is not related to the instance size.
The option that says: Submit a capacity increase request to AWS as you are initially limited to only 12 instances per Placement Group is incorrect because there is no such limit on the number of instances in a Placement Group.
References:
https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSEC2/latest/UserGuide/placement-groups.html#placement-groups-clu ster
http://docs.amazonaws.cn/en_us/AWSEC2/latest/UserGuide/troubleshooting-launch.html#troubleshootin g-launch-capacity Check out this Amazon EC2 Cheat Sheet:
https://tutorialsdojo.com/amazon-elastic-compute-cloud-amazon-ec2/


NEW QUESTION # 746
A company is planning to use an Amazon DynamoDB table for data storage. The company is concerned about cost optimization. The table will not be used on most mornings. In the evenings, the read and write traffic will often be unpredictable. When traffic spikes occur, they will happen very quickly.
What should a solutions architect recommend?

  • A. Create a DynamoDB table with provisioned capacity and auto scaling.
  • B. Create a DynamoDB table with a global secondary index.
  • C. Create a DynamoDB table in provisioned capacity mode, and configure it as a global table.
  • D. Create a DynamoDB table in on-demand capacity mode.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 747
A company has an on-premises data center that is running out of storage capacity. The company wants to migrate its storage infrastructure to AWS while minimizing bandwidth costs. The solution must allow for immediate retrieval of data at no additional cost.
How can these requirements be met?

  • A. Deploy AWS Direct Connect to connect with the on-premises data center. Configure AWS Storage Gateway to store data locally. Use Storage Gateway to asynchronously back up point-in-time snapshots of the data to Amazon S3.
  • B. Deploy AWS Storage Gateway using cached volumes. Use Storage Gateway to store data in Amazon S3 while retaining copies of frequently accessed data subsets locally.
  • C. Deploy AWS Storage Gateway using stored volumes to store data locally. Use Storage Gateway to asynchronously back up point-in-time snapshots of the data to Amazon S3.
  • D. Deploy Amazon S3 Glacier Vault and enable expedited retrieval. Enable provisioned retrieval capacity for the workload.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The solution that will meet the requirements is to deploy AWS Storage Gateway using cached volumes and use Storage Gateway to store data in Amazon S3 while retaining copies of frequently accessed data subsets locally. This solution will allow the company to migrate its storage infrastructure to AWS while minimizing bandwidth costs, as it will only transfer data that is not cached locally. The solution will also allow for immediate retrieval of data at no additional cost, as the cached volumes will provide low-latency access to the most recently used data. The data stored in Amazon S3 will be durable, scalable, and secure.
The other solutions are not as effective as the first one because they either do not meet the requirements or introduce additional costs or complexity. Deploying Amazon S3 Glacier Vault and enabling expedited retrieval will not meet the requirements, as it will incur additional costs for both storage and retrieval. Amazon S3 Glacier is a low-cost storage service for data archiving and backup, but it has longer retrieval times than Amazon S3. Expedited retrieval is a feature that allows faster access to data, but it charges a higher fee per GB retrieved. Provisioned retrieval capacity is a feature that reserves dedicated capacity for expedited retrievals, but it also charges a monthly fee per provisioned capacity unit. Deploying AWS Storage Gateway using stored volumes to store data locally and use Storage Gateway to asynchronously back up point-in-time snapshots of the data to Amazon S3 will not meet the requirements, as it will not migrate the storage infrastructure to AWS, but only create backups. Stored volumes are volumes that store the primary data locally and back up snapshots to Amazon S3. This solution will not reduce the storage capacity needed on-premises, nor will it leverage the benefits of cloud storage. Deploying AWS Direct Connect to connect with the on-premises data center and configuring AWS Storage Gateway to store data locally and use Storage Gateway to asynchronously back up point-in-time snapshots of the data to Amazon S3 will not meet the requirements, as it will also not migrate the storage infrastructure to AWS, but only create backups. AWS Direct Connect is a service that establishes a dedicated network connection between the on-premises data center and AWS, which can reduce network costs and increase bandwidth. However, this solution will also not reduce the storage capacity needed on-premises, nor will it leverage the benefits of cloud storage.
References:
AWS Storage Gateway
Cached volumes - AWS Storage Gateway
Amazon S3 Glacier
Retrieving archives from Amazon S3 Glacier vaults - Amazon Simple Storage Service Stored volumes - AWS Storage Gateway AWS Direct Connect


NEW QUESTION # 748
......

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